Wednesday, March 02, 2016

Did Jesus Speak Literally or Figuratively In John 17 - Concerning Doctrine and Understanding Of Jesus Christ ?



I believe that Scripture is clear that God's Word is Holy and those who come Teaching His Word must be very careful how they interpret Holy Scripture.  2 Tim. 2:15 and    2Peter 1: 20,21. In today's world, Anybody with a video camera can make a Bible teaching video.

I saw a video on youtube last night https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jJzd40rRWkw

He attempts to refute a colleague of mine who has dedicated much of his life to defending a Biblical Unitarian understanding of Scripture.

which Is : a One Person God, the Father Of Jesus Christ our Lord and This Jesus Christ is a One and Only Fully Human Jesus Christ...alone.

This young guy attempts to zero in on the  "I HAD" in John 17:5 , where Jesus Christ is speaking and then wants to take the "I" as a literal pre-existence, rather than a figurative
one.

And I believe that we clearly see .. in just three verses John 17:8...that clearly shows why "I came forth"... from You......cannot be literal...

It would make God the Father in Heaven a Flesh and Blood person who gave birth to a Flesh and blood and/or a Spiritual Messiah with two Parallel existences....one coming forth from Mary and One from the Father.

And then it would get even more absurd....at some point the One from Mary and God (that we know of)....would HAVE to be supernaturally exchanged for the one speaking in the passage.

When will they give up their false idols and stop privately interpreting Our God's Word?

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